You are given a permutation$$$^\dagger$$$ $$$p$$$ of length $$$n$$$.

In one operation, you can choose two indices $$$1 \le i \lt j \le n$$$ and swap $$$p_i$$$ with $$$p_j$$$.

Find the minimum number of operations needed to have exactly one inversion$$$^\ddagger$$$ in the permutation.

$$$^\dagger$$$ A permutation is an array consisting of $$$n$$$ distinct integers from $$$1$$$ to $$$n$$$ in arbitrary order. For example, $$$[2,3,1,5,4]$$$ is a permutation, but $$$[1,2,2]$$$ is not a permutation ($$$2$$$ appears twice in the array), and $$$[1,3,4]$$$ is also not a permutation ($$$n=3$$$ but there is $$$4$$$ in the array).

$$$^\ddagger$$$ The number of inversions of a permutation $$$p$$$ is the number of pairs of indices $$$(i, j)$$$ such that $$$1 \le i \lt j \le n$$$ and $$$p_i \gt p_j$$$.

Input

The first line contains a single integer $$$t$$$ ($$$1 \le t \le 10^4$$$) — the number of test cases. The description of test cases follows.

The first line of each test case contains a single integer $$$n$$$ ($$$2 \le n \le 2 \cdot 10^5$$$).

The second line of each test case contains $$$n$$$ integers $$$p_1,p_2,\ldots, p_n$$$ ($$$1 \le p_i \le n$$$). It is guaranteed that $$$p$$$ is a permutation.

It is guaranteed that the sum of $$$n$$$ over all test cases does not exceed $$$2 \cdot 10^5$$$.

Output

For each test case output a single integer — the minimum number of operations needed to have exactly one inversion in the permutation. It can be proven that an answer always exists.

Note

In the first test case, the permutation already satisfies the condition.

In the second test case, you can perform the operation with $$$(i,j)=(1,2)$$$, after that the permutation will be $$$[2,1]$$$ which has exactly one inversion.

In the third test case, it is not possible to satisfy the condition with less than $$$3$$$ operations. However, if we perform $$$3$$$ operations with $$$(i,j)$$$ being $$$(1,3)$$$,$$$(2,4)$$$, and $$$(3,4)$$$ in that order, the final permutation will be $$$[1, 2, 4, 3]$$$ which has exactly one inversion.

In the fourth test case, you can perform the operation with $$$(i,j)=(2,4)$$$, after that the permutation will be $$$[2,1,3,4]$$$ which has exactly one inversion.

Lucky Permutation

Examples