This problem is about candy. Initially, you only have $$$1$$$ candy, and you want to have exactly $$$n$$$ candies.

You can use the two following spells in any order at most $$$40$$$ times in total.

Assume you have $$$x$$$ candies now. If you use the first spell, then $$$x$$$ candies become $$$2x-1$$$ candies.
Assume you have $$$x$$$ candies now. If you use the second spell, then $$$x$$$ candies become $$$2x+1$$$ candies.

Construct a sequence of spells, such that after using them in order, you will have exactly $$$n$$$ candies, or determine it's impossible.

Input

Each test contains multiple test cases. The first line contains a single integer $$$t$$$ ($$$1 \le t \le 10^4$$$) — the number of test cases. Their description follows.

Each test case contains one line with a single integer $$$n$$$ ($$$2 \le n \le 10^9$$$) — the required final number of candies.

Output

For each test case, output the following.

If it's possible to eventually have $$$n$$$ candies within $$$40$$$ spells, in the first line print an integer $$$m$$$ ($$$1 \le m \le 40$$$), representing the total number of spells you use.

In the second print $$$m$$$ integers $$$a_{1}, a_{2}, \ldots, a_{m}$$$ ($$$a_{i}$$$ is $$$1$$$ or $$$2$$$) separated by spaces, where $$$a_{i} = 1$$$ means that you use the first spell in the $$$i$$$-th step, while $$$a_{i} = 2$$$ means that you use the second spell in the $$$i$$$-th step.

Note that you do not have to minimize $$$m$$$, and if there are multiple solutions, you may output any one of them.

If it's impossible, output $$$-1$$$ in one line.

Note

For $$$n=3$$$, you can just use the second spell once, and then have $$$2 \cdot 1 + 1 = 3$$$ candies.

For $$$n=7$$$, you can use the second spell twice. After the first step, you will have $$$3$$$ candies. And after the second step, you will have $$$2 \cdot 3 + 1 = 7$$$ candies.

Candies

Examples